"Obsolete" means it's no longer used, so therefore it has no usage.
I'm well aware of the meaning of the word "obsolete", and I can tell you it does not necessarily mean it receives no usage. That would be simply untrue. What the dictionary is saying that it has been largely replaced with the "jail" spelling.
I don't know everything about the english language, but by the sounds of it I sure know a hell of a lot more than you. Gaol is not used at all, maybe 100 years ago, not today.
It's amusing that you feel the need to make wildly speculative claims about my level of education. Do I perhaps detect a hint of that latent (and very often undeserved) air of superiority wafting across the Atlantic? Take your unqualified claims ("I sure know a hell of a lot more than you," "maybe 100 years ago.") somewhere else, please.
That link does nothing but just repeat everything you've already said.
It also brings up where the word "gaol" is still able to be frequently found: in legal documents.
Also, click me.
&How is the point already proven? You can't prove that it's used in England today, especially when every British person in this thread has said that it's not.
It would be far more accurate to say that your claim (that "gaol" is never used) can't be proven,
despite every British person in this thread saying they have never heard it used. There's how many tens of millions of English speakers in the U.K.? How can you even begin to say that you have presented any evidence backing up your claim, a claim that encompasses all British English-speakers.
Let's go back to the whole reason I made this thread: a minor joke, mostly aimed at AndyB. But it seems like instead of taking it as such, you tried rather unsuccessfully to call out the stupid ignorant American. How did that go?